Science Fiction & Fantasy Asked by USER920 on May 16, 2021
For example, since Harry won Draco’s wand from him, how would Draco’s hawthorn wand respond to him if he regained possession of it at some point without winning it back?
For those who say it would have acted normally, how can a wand change allegiance and then behave normally for its original master afterwards? Yes, Rowling states that wands will often retain some loyalty to the original owner even when won, but that doesn’t necessarily mean it will work fully for the original master without them winning it back outright?
Likewise, how does the wand work for winner, in this case, Harry? He states that it works at least as well as Hermione’s had, but it would probably have to work better than that because he never reported any problems using it like he did with the blackthorn wand that he had not won.
Is there a possibility that a wand that has been won is in a conflicted state, not truly working fully for anyone because of its divided loyalty?
TL;DR Wands will always work for the user, better for rightful owner, best for original owner - may be due to simple compatibility and familiarity.
Answered by SIRHAMY on May 16, 2021
It depends on the wand, and particularly on the wand wood. According to Pottermore, some types of wood used for wand are especially loyal to their first owner no matter what, such as applewood, while others like elder wood respond to power, and will give total allegiance to whomever wins them, forsaking their previous owner.
Answered by childcat15 on May 16, 2021
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