Quantum Computing Asked on June 18, 2021
This is probably a very obvious question, but I am going through this problem set and I don’t understand why in 1b) it says that it is obvious that $|langlepsi_1^perp|psi_2rangle|=sintheta$ given that $|langlepsi_1|psi_2rangle| = costheta$.
TL;DR: These inner products are equal to the amplitudes and therefore the squares of their magnitudes sum to one. By Pythagoras theorem $sin^2theta + cos^2theta = 1$, so if one of the amplitudes is $costheta$ then the magnitude of the other must be $|sintheta|$.
Since ${|psi_1rangle, |psi_1^perprangle}$ is a basis, we can expand $|psi_2rangle$ as
$$ |psi_2rangle = alpha |psi_1rangle + beta |psi_1^perprangletag1 $$
where $|alpha|^2 + |beta|^2=1$. Moreover, since the basis is orthonormal, we can compute $alpha$ and $beta$ in terms of inner products
$$ alpha = langle psi_1|psi_2rangle beta = langle psi_1^perp|psi_2rangle $$
as is easy to check by taking the inner product of $(1)$ with the elements of the dual basis. Now, from $|alpha|^2 + |beta|^2=1$ we see that
$$ |langle psi_1^perp|psi_2rangle| = |beta| = sqrt{1 - |alpha|^2} = sqrt{1 - |langle psi_1|psi_2rangle|^2} = sqrt{1 - cos^2theta} = |sintheta| $$
but $theta in (0, pi)$ so $|langle psi_1^perp|psi_2rangle|=sintheta$.
Correct answer by Adam Zalcman on June 18, 2021
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