Quantitative Finance Asked by Joshua Fernandes on December 14, 2021
I get that the premium for an earlier exercise should be higher to compensate the seller but intuitively you would think that the spot has “less room to run” in a potentially shorter period of time (due to a potential earlier exercise compared to the European counterpart)…. am i thinking about this correctly? What am I missing?
Optionality always benefits the holder of the option (since the payoff will be the higher of exercising the option or not), so an option with more "optionality" (in this case, more opportunities to choose exercise) will always be worth more.
I don't see where your question has anything to do with "implied" volatility.
Answered by D Stanley on December 14, 2021
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