Physics Asked on June 17, 2021
I cannot think of any explanation as to why Trouton’s rule might hold true. I mean, I know it has been experimentally verified, but is there any theoretical ground that explains why it holds? Additionally, why does it only work with the molar-specific entropy but not the mass-specific one?
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP