Physics Asked on December 20, 2020
This might be a stupid question, but why is the normalization of the Gell-Mann matrices (basis of the $mathrm{su}(3)$ Lie algebra) chosen to be
$$mathrm{trace}(lambda_ilambda_j)=2delta_{ij}$$
instead of just $delta_{ij}$ without the factor $2$? In most of linear-algebra, basis vectors are normalized to $1$ (or not normalized at all). Why not in the context of Lie Algebras? Is there a way of looking at this which makes the factor $2$ seem natural?
On a related note, some physics texts change the normalization by defining "the generators of the $mathrm{SU}(3)$ group" as $T_i=frac{1}{2}lambda_i$. But these just fulfil $mathrm{trace}(T_iT_j)=frac{1}{2}delta_{ij}$ which seems just as unnatural to me. (And the difference between these two normalization conventions just cost me an hour of chasing a missing factor $4$ in a long calculation. Which is why I’m asking this question xD).
History. The Gell-Mann matrices are an extension/generalization of the Pauli spin matrices for su(2), and $lambda_{1,2,3}$ identify with these, so obey the same trace relation.
You also understand why the Pauli matrices are further normalized this way by an extra 1/2, so as to then obey the canonically normalized su(2) algebra with structure constant ε, thereby avoiding half-angle exponentials.
Correct answer by Cosmas Zachos on December 20, 2020
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