Physics Asked by Bloomlet on June 19, 2021
I know for the car to be moving at constant speed, the driving force equals the magnitude of all the opposing forces so kinetic energy is not increasing and net force is zero, but I was reading about this and it said all the chemical energy was being converted to thermal energy, but why is none of it being converted to kinetic energy if kinetic energy is ‘energy due to motion’ and $KE=frac 12mv^2$ ? Surely even though the car is not gaining kinetic energy, the chemical energy is still being converted into kinetic energy to keep the car moving at a constant speed?
It depends how you think of the energy budget of the car. If the engine were not running then the kinetic energy of the car would gradually be converted to thermal energy (via friction) as the car slowed down. So from one point of view you can think of the chemical energy released in the engine as maintaining the kinetic energy of the car at a constant value.
Or you can say the kinetic energy of the car is constant so the chemical energy released must equal the thermal energy lost. From this point of view the chemical energy goes straight into thermal energy, bypassing the kinetic energy “pot”.
If person A pays you $100$ dollars and you use that to pay $100$ dollars that you owe to person B, do you think of the $100$ dollars as going from A to you to B or straight from A to B ? The outcome is the same in either case.
Answered by gandalf61 on June 19, 2021
There is the process $$mathrm{A rightarrow B rightarrow C},$$
where
Loses of $mathrm{B}$ via $mathrm{B rightarrow C}$ are compensated by the equal rate of conversion $mathrm{A rightarrow B}$.
There is also the more direct parallel process
$$mathrm{A rightarrow C}$$
during the engine actions, taking the most of $mathrm{A}$, as the inevitable consequence of the 2nd law of thermodynamics.
Answered by Poutnik on June 19, 2021
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