Physics Asked by raptakem on July 15, 2021
Following the textbook “Ideas and Methods of Supersymmetry and Supergravity” by Ioseph Buchbinder and Sergei Kuzenko (p38 – 40):
If we consider the a frame deformation in our vierbein induced by a symmetric rank 2 Lorentz tensor $H$:
$$e^m_a rightarrow e_a^m + H_a^b e^m_b$$
One can easily show:
$$g_{mn} = e^a_m e^b_n eta_{ab}$$
$$ implies delta g_{mn} = -2 e_m^a e_n^b H_{ab}$$
$$ implies H_{ab} = – frac{1}{2} e^m_a e^n_b delta g_{mn}$$
The next goal would be to identity how the curvature varies with respect to the variation in the metric so that various invariants could be identified (p40-41), however upon attempting to find the variation in the scalar curvature:
$$delta R = 2 nabla^c nabla_c H^a_a – 2 nabla^a nabla^b H_{ab} + 2 H^{ab}R_{ab}$$
$$implies delta R = – nabla^c nabla_c (eta^{ab} e_a^{m}e_b^{n} delta g_{mn}) + nabla^a nabla^b (e_a^{m}e_b^{n} delta g_{mn}) – (e_a^{m}e_b^{n} delta g_{mn})R_{ab} $$
By using the compatibility of the vielbein with the covariant derivative:
$$delta R = – eta^{ab} e_a^{m}e_b^{n} nabla^c nabla_c delta g_{mn} + e_a^{m}e_b^{n} nabla^a nabla^b delta g_{mn} – e_a^{m}e_b^{n} delta g_{mn}R_{ab}$$
Which does not seem to be of the correct form. Is there anything further I could try or have I approached this incorrectly?
A useful equation might be $$ g^{munu} delta R_{munu} = (g_{munu}nabla^2 -nabla_mu nabla_nu) delta g^{munu}, $$ but may be you are already using this?
I don't think that you have the compatibility correct, though. The connection is defined by specifying the covariant derivative of the basis vectors of $T(M)$. In the case of a vielbein frame ${bf e}_a$, the covariant derivative of the vector ${bf e}_a$ is written as $$ nabla_mu{bf e}_a = {bf e}_b {omega^b}_{amu} $$ which one can write in coordinate-frame components (i.e. where ${bf e}_a=e_a^mu partial_mu$) as $$ nabla_mu e^nu_a equiv (nabla_mu{bf e}_a)^nu= e^nu_b {omega^b}_{amu}. $$ The covariant derivative of the vierbein basis is therefore not zero. I have seen people argue for passing vierbeins through covariant derivatives by writing this last equation as $$ partial_mu e^nu_a + {Gamma^nu}_{lambdamu} e^lambda_a - e^nu_b {omega^b}_{amu}=0 $$ and thinking of this as a kind of "generalized" covariant derivative being zero. In doing this they are making the mistake of imagining that the the "$a$'' in $e_a^mu$ is an index rather than a label telling us which frame vector ${bf e}_a$ is. It's perhaps a useful mnemonic, but is also kind of schizophrenic, as they are attempting to work simultaneously with a vielbein frame and a co-ordinate basis for the tangent space $T(M)$. It makes no mathematical sense to interpret the definition of the frame connection ${omega^b}_{amu}$ that way. Certainly the expression $$ partial_mu e^nu_a + {Gamma^nu}_{lambdamu} e^lambda_a - e^nu_b {omega^b}_{amu} $$ is not the $nu$-th component of the covariant derivative $nabla_mu {bf e}_a$! Treating it as if it were will inevitably lead to confusion, and this is what I suspect is happening in your calculation.
Another useful formula for the variation of the tosion-free spin connection under a change of vielbein frame is $$ (delta omega_{ijmu}) e^mu_k =-frac 12left{( eta_{ib}( nabla_j [e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_k]- nabla_k [e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_j]) +eta_{jb}( nabla_k [e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_i]- nabla_i [e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_k]) -eta_{kb}( nabla_i [e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_j]- nabla_j [e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_i])right}. $$ where I think my $eta_{ib}e^{*b}_alpha delta e^alpha_j= {bf e}_icdot delta{bf e}_j$ are the same thing as your $H_{ij}$
Answered by mike stone on July 15, 2021
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