Physics Asked on May 19, 2021
In G. ’t Hooft 1982 Phys. Scr. 25 133 paper ‘The Topological Mechanism for Permanent Quark Confinement in a Non-Abelian Gauge Theory’
He wrote in the abstract:
We first argue that indeed superconductivity is an absolute phenomenon, the conductivity is rigorously zero.
Should he mean the conductivity diverges but the resistivity is rigorously zero? What does he mean exactly there? (thus there was a misprint?) Or does he mean within the superconductivity gap, there is a range of conductivity is rigorously zero?
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