Physics Asked by Lisa B. on January 20, 2021
N has 7 protons and 7 neutrons per atom. So the spin is S=1 for one N-atom. Why is this? I know that they do pairs in the shell model. So I only need to look at the spin of a single proton and a single neutron in N. If both spins are parallel it is 1 or -1. But why is 0 not an option for this (antiparallel spin ex. S = $frac{1}{2}$ for proton and S=$-frac{1}{2}$ for neutron)?
Therefore the spin of $N_2$ must be 0 or 2, right? 1 isnt possible because 0 isn’t an option for a single N-atom as far as I understand.
I just do not understand the detail. I need to tell if the angular momentum quantum number of $N_2$ can be even, uneven or both if the wave function of the nucleus is antisymmetric. So I need to tell first if the wavefunction is symmetric or not.
In the nuclear shell model, $^{14}$N is seen as an inert $^{12}$C core, with 2 extra nucleons. The ground state for the strong nuclear force is going to put these nucleons in the same spatial state (a symmetric S state) and the same spin state (which for spin 1/2 particles is the spin-1 triplet state). Anti-symmetrization of the wave function is accomplished in the isospin sector via the singlet isospin wave function:
$$ |I=0, I_3=0rangle = frac 1 {sqrt 2}[|prangle|nrangle - |nrangle|prangle]$$
It's important to note that individual nucleons do not have a definite "proton" or "neutron" identity with isospin. It is exactly the same as a spin 1/2 particle not having a definite spin.
So we can treat each $^{14}$N as indistinguishable vector bosons.
You can work out the Clebsch-Gordan coefficients for combining two vectors, but the general structure is:
$$ {bf 3} otimes {bf 3} = {bf 5}_S oplus {bf 3}_A oplus {bf 1}_S $$
which means the spin-2 and spin-0 multiplets are symmetric under interchange and the spin-1 combination is antisymmetric. For example:
$$|J=1,J_z=0rangle = frac 1 {sqrt 2}[|1,+1rangle_1|1,-1rangle_2 - |1,-1rangle_1|1,+1rangle_2]$$
while:
$$|J=0,J_z=0rangle = frac 1 {sqrt 3}[|1,+1rangle_1|1,-1rangle_2 + |1,-1rangle_1|1,+1rangle_2 - |1,0rangle_1|1,0rangle_2 ]$$
The molecular wave function then needs to have the same symmetry as the spin wave function to make the overall wave function symmetric.
Answered by JEB on January 20, 2021
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