Physics Asked on November 21, 2020
I noticed this the other day. I don’t really know "what" this means, I’d love to understand.
Is the "general form" of any quantum mechanical operator of a given classical quantity $Q$, whose conservation law is given by a symmetry in some ‘direction ‘$d$ going to be proportial to $hat Q equiv i hbar frac{partial}{partial d}$?
If not, why do the energy and momentum operator have their symmetries in the derivative? is there a reason?
There is a lot of truth behind OP's observations, which are backed up by the following facts:
An infinitesimal symmetry $delta$ with symmetry parameter $epsilon$ is generated by a Noether charge $hat{Q}$ in the sense that $delta=epsilon [hat{Q},cdot]$, cf. e.g. this Phys.SE post.
The symmetry parameter $epsilon$ can often be associated with a variable/coordinate $q$ of theory.
If $[hat{Q},q]propto {bf 1}$ is proportional to the identity operator we can go to the corresponding Schroedinger representation $hat{Q}proptofrac{partial}{partial q}$ in $q$-space.
Correct answer by Qmechanic on November 21, 2020
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