Physics Asked by acarturk on March 26, 2021
In normal (i.e. finite potential) QM systems, a particle wave function can have many nodes with $| psi rangle neq | 0 rangle land langle x | psi rangle = psi(x) = 0$. However, in systems that include infinite potential regions, we end up having continuous regions $D$ for which $forall x in D V(x) = inftyimpliespsi(x) = 0$.
My question is regarding the case where the complement of this infinite potential region is disconnected.
Normally, we insert a particle in the entire space and do our calculations with the assumption that this particle is free to interact with all parts of it. However, in this specific case, a particle that is known to exist in one of the maximal connected subsets (i.e. connected component) $A$ of $D’$ should (probably) have $forall x in A’ psi(x) = 0$ regardless of whether $x in D’$. I argue this but I have no solid proof of it.
Is this really the case? And also on that note, if this is correct, what is the difference between separations caused by a region with $psi(x) = 0$ and the nodes where we also have $psi(x) = 0$? What determines whether if the wave function passes through a region or not?
Also a final question: If we make a system with the same configuration but make the infinite potentials to become finite but very large (compared to $hat V$ in $D’$ and $hat K$, for example), can we see a similar effect or will it break down immediately? Basically, can we (more or less) separate two spatially disconnected regions using infinite or finite potentials, and if so, to what extend?
Is this really the case?
Yes. If you know that the particle is in a specific region $A$ at time $t$ and that the region is surrounded by an infinite potential, then this imposes a boundary condition on the time-dependent Schrodinger equation, such that the probability of finding the particle outside this region is zero at any later time $t^prime$. Formally:
$$left[forall x notin A: psi(x, t) = 0 right] wedge left[ forall x in partial A: V(x)=infty right] Rightarrow forall x notin A: psi(x, t^prime) = 0 $$
what is the difference between separations caused by a region with ψ(x)=0 and the nodes where we also have ψ(x)=0? What determines whether if the wave function passes through a region or not?
It is the infinite potential that prevents the wavefunction from passing not the nodes. If at a later time the infinite potential is removed, the wavefunction will spread outside its initial confinement region $A$. The nodes of the wavefunction at a specific time do not restrict the wavefunction at a later time. Indeed the nodes themselves can change with time deepening on the situation.
Also a final question: If we make a system with the same configuration but make the infinite potentials to become finite but very large (compared to V^ in D′ and K^, for example), can we see a similar effect or will it break down immediately? Basically, can we (more or less) separate two spatially disconnected regions using infinite or finite potentials, and if so, to what extend?
Using a finite potential, there is a finite probability that the particle will cross that barrier (This effect is known as Quantum Tunneling). The probability is an exponential decaying function that depends on the height and thickness of the barrier. As the potential becomes larger, the probability gets smaller till it becomes zero in the infinite potential limit.
Correct answer by Quantum-Collapse on March 26, 2021
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