Physics Asked on December 19, 2020
In inner product spaces in $mathbb R$ we have an axiom stating that:
$$ langle x, xrangle geq 0 text{and} langle x, xrangle = 0 iff x = 0$$
In Griffiths’ textbook for Quantum Mechanics, they have stated that,
$$ langlealpha|alpharangle geq 0 text{and} langlealpha|alpharangle = 0 iff x = 0$$
My question is that, since $alpha in mathbb C$ then why is true that $langlealpha|alpharangle geq 0$. the product of two complex number can be negative, right?
For complex numbers, the inner product is $sum_ibar {a_i} b_i$ rather than $sum_i a_i b_i$, where $bar {a_i}$ denotes the complex conjugate.
Note that if $a=x+iy$ then $bar a cdot a=x^2+y^2ge0$
Correct answer by Gyro Gearloose on December 19, 2020
$|alpharangle$ is a state, not a number. The rules of inner product state that $$ langle beta |alpha rangle in {mathbb C} , qquad langle beta |alpha rangle^* = langle alpha |beta rangle. $$ It follows that $$ langle alpha |alpha rangle^* = langle alpha | alpha rangle quad implies quad langle alpha | alpha rangle in {mathbb R}. $$ We can therefore assign a sign to this quantity. Another rule for QM then requires that the inner product be positive semi-definite, $$ langle alpha |alpha rangle geq 0 , qquad langle alpha |alpha rangle = 0 quad Longleftrightarrow quad |alpharangle = 0 . $$
Answered by Prahar on December 19, 2020
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