Physics Asked by Brentdb on September 29, 2021
In my fluid mechanics course we encounter a lot of vector calculus problems, one of which I have been struggling with for a while now. We must prove that
$$ vec{V} cdot left(vec{nabla}vec{V}right) = left(vec{nabla}cdotvec{V}right)vec{V} $$
solely using summation/index notation. $vec{nabla}vec{V}$ is a second order tensor which we denote by:
$$left(sumlimits_{i}hat{e}_{i}frac{partial}{partial x_i}right)left(sumlimits_{j}hat{e}_{j}V_jright).$$
I think my confusion lies in the use of $frac{partial}{partial x_i}$ in a tensor since we haven’t used tensors commonly before taking this course. Could someone maybe prove this and clarify how second order tensors work in general?
The space that these vectors live in has a metric $g_{ij}$. For example, if you're in Euclidean space and you're using Cartesian coordinates, then $g_{ij}$ is equal to the Kronecker delta $delta_{ij}$. If you're using non-Cartesian coordinates (e.g. polar coordinates) or you're working in non-Euclidean space, then your metric will be different. The index notation expression for a vector is $v^i$. The dot product between two vectors is represented by:
$$vec{a}cdotvec{b}=a^ig_{ij}b^j=a^ib_i$$
This is, in fact, the definition of a metric - it tells you the "distance" between the tips of two vectors. The "lowered index" vector $b_i$ is defined straightforwardly, as long as you know what your metric is:
$$b_i=g_{ij}b^j$$
If you're in Euclidean space and you're using Cartesian coordinates, then we conveniently have that $b_i=b^i$, since $g_{ij}=delta_{ij}$. With any other metric, this is not true. For example, in 2D polar coordinates (where $vec{b}=b^rhat{r}+b^thetahat{theta}$), our metric is defined by $g_{rr}=1$ and $g_{thetatheta}=r^2$, with the other two elements zero. In that case, we have that $b_r=g_{rr}b^r+g_{rtheta}b^{theta}$, so $b_r=b^r$, but $b_theta=g_{theta r}b^r+g_{theta theta}b^{theta}$, so $b_theta=r^2b^{theta}$. But as long as you know what your metric is, lowering the index of a vector should be straightforward.
For the rest of this discussion, let's assume that you're working in Euclidean space, since the differential geometry in non-Euclidean space gets complicated once you start taking derivatives.
The derivative operator $vec{nabla}$ is notated as $partial^i$, which is shorthand for $frac{partial}{partial x^i}$. The dyadic product $vec{nabla}vec{V}$ is therefore notated as $partial^j v^i$, which is shorthand for $frac{partial v^i}{partial x^j}$.Putting all this together, the expression you need to prove is written as:
$$v^ig_{ij}partial^kv^j=partial^ig_{ij}v^jv^k$$
or, lowering the indices:
$$v_jpartial^kv^j=partial_j v^jv^k$$
This should be enough information to start the proof.
Answered by probably_someone on September 29, 2021
$defvv{{bf v}}
defdel{nabla}
defo{cdot}
defpd{partial}$Note that
$$[vvo(delvv)]_j
= v_i [delvv]_{ij}
= v_i(pd_i v_j)$$
and
$$[(delovv)vv]_j
= (pd_i v_i)v_j.$$
But that
$$v_i(pd_i v_j)ne (pd_i v_i)v_j,$$
in general.
(Repeated indices are to be summed over.
This is Einstein's summation notation.)
For clarity let $vv$ be two dimensional. For $j=1$ the claim is that $$v_1(pd_1 v_1) + v_2(pd_2 v_1) = (pd_1 v_1+pd_2 v_2)v_1.$$ Clearly this is false. For example, if $vv=[x,y]^T$ this implies that $$x = 2x.$$
The intended claim is likely that $$vvo(delvv) = (vvodel)vv.$$ (Note that $delovv$ and $vvodel$ are completely different objects. The first is a scalar. The second is a scalar differential operator.) This result can be easily proved, $$[vvo(delvv)]_j = v_i [delvv]_{ij} = v_i(pd_i v_j) = (v_ipd_i) v_j = [(vvodel)vv]_j.$$
Answered by user26872 on September 29, 2021
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