Physics Asked on May 17, 2021
Equation (6.7) in the big yellow book (Di Francesco, Mathieu, Senechal) says we can write the field of a 2D CFT with weight $(h, bar h) = (tfrac{1}{2}(Delta + J), tfrac{1}{2}(Delta – J))$ as
begin{equation} tag{1}
phi(z, bar{z} ) = sum_{m,n in mathbb{Z} } frac{phi_{m,n}}{z^{m + h} bar{z}^{n + bar{h} } }
end{equation}
I am very confused for this equation due to the appearance of $(m + h)$ and $(n + h)$ in the denominator instead of $m$ and $n$ (where $m$ and $n$ are integers). Note that while $h – bar{h} = J$ is an integer, $h$ and $bar{h}$ do not have to be integers individually, which is what confuses me.
I have read this answer which motivates it from a cylinder CFT, but I don’t want an answer that references the cylinder, I am interested in a resolution involving only the plane.
I will list my problems with this equation:
Wouldn’t a more standard expression be
begin{equation} tag{2}
phi(z, bar{z} ) = sum_{m,n in mathbb{Z} } frac{phi_{m,n}}{z^{m} bar{z}^{n} }
end{equation}
which is basically a Laurant expansion? For example, if $phi(z, bar{z})$ were just a function (I know it’s really an operator) then a very large class of functions can be written in terms of the equation above, as essentially a Laurent series, but I don’t know what class of functions can be written with $m + h$ and $n + bar{h}$ instead of $m$ and $n$?
It seems to me that if a function is expressible in terms of equation $(1)$, it can’t be expressible in terms of equation $(2)$, and vice versa. In other words, only one can be correct and the other must be wrong, It can’t be a matter of convention. I would like an explanation as to why $(1)$ must be correct and $(2)$ must be incorrect (without invoking the cylinder), especially given that a Laurent series seems to me to be more natural.
If $m$ and $n$ are too big, the operator $phi_{m, n}$ will annihilate the vacuum state $|0rangle$. This is because the correlation functions must be smoothly varying as $z to 0$.
begin{equation} tag{3}
phi_{m,n} |0rangle = 0 text{ for } (m,n) > (-h, -bar{h})
end{equation}
However… doesn’t that imply that all states made from acting on the vacuum are $0$, just because all the powers of $z$ that remain are positive?
begin{equation} tag{4}
phi(0,0) | 0 rangle = lim_{z, bar{z} to 0} sum_{(m,n) > (-h, -bar{h}) } frac{phi_{m,n}}{z^{m + h} bar{z}^{n + bar{h} } } |0 rangle =0
end{equation}
If $h$ was an integer, then one power would remain that is $z^0$, but I’m assuming $h$ isn’t an integer.
$newcommand{bw}{{bar{w}}} newcommand{bh}{{bar{h}}} newcommand{mO}{mathcal{O}} newcommand{vk}{|0rangle} newcommand{vb}{langle 0|}$
Okay, here is the answer. Here we use begin{align} h &= tfrac{1}{2}( Delta + J) bar{h} &= tfrac{1}{2}( Delta - J) end{align} where $Delta > 0$ and $J in mathbb{Z}$.
On the Euclidean plane we have the mode expansion begin{equation} mathcal{O}^{(p)}(w, bw) = sum_{m,n = 0}^infty (a^dagger_{mn} w^{m} bw^n + a_{mn} w^{-m-2h} bw^{-n-2bh}). end{equation} With the adjoint given by begin{equation} [mO^{(p)}(w, bw) ]^dagger = bw^{-2bh} w^{-2 h} mO^{(p)}(1/bw, 1/w) end{equation} we then have begin{equation} [mO^{(p)}(w, bw) ]^dagger = sum_{m,n = 0}^infty (a_{mn} bw^{m}w^n + a_{mn}^dagger bw^{-m-2h} w^{-n-2bh}) end{equation} which you can see by inspection is indeed the adjoint of $mathcal{O}^{(p)}$ we have written.
If we also have begin{align} a_{mn} vk &= 0 vb a_{mn}^dagger &= 0 end{align} then this implies begin{align} mO^{(p)}(0,0) vk &= a^dagger_{00} vk vb [mO^{(p)}(0,0)]^dagger &= vb a_{00} vb [mO^{(p)}(0,0)]^dagger mO^{(p)}(0,0) vb &= vb a_{00} a_{00}^dagger vk. end{align}
Let's now transform to the Euclidean cylinder. We have ($sigma sim sigma + 2 pi$) begin{align} w &= e^{w'} = e^{tau + i sigma} w' &= ln(w) end{align} and the primary transformation law begin{equation} mO'(w', bw') = (partial_w w')^{-h} (partial_bw bw')^{-bh} mO(w, bw). end{equation} This means that begin{align} mO^{(c)}(tau, sigma) &= w^h bw^bhmO^{(p)} (w, bw) end{align} Using begin{align} w^h bw^bh &= (e^{tau + i sigma})^h (e^{tau - i sigma})^bh &= e^{tau(h + bh) + i sigma ( h - bh)} &= e^{tauDelta + i sigma J} end{align} we get begin{align} mO^{(c)}(tau, sigma) &= sum_{m,n = 0}^infty ( a^dagger_{mn} e^{(m + n + Delta) tau + i (m-n + J) sigma} + a_{mn} e^{-(m+n + Delta ) tau - i (m -n + J) sigma} ). end{align} Note that, in Euclidean signature, we have begin{equation} mathcal{O}^{(c)}(tau, sigma) = e^{tau H} mO(0, sigma)^{(c)} e^{- tau H} end{equation} so begin{align} [mathcal{O}^{(c)}(tau, sigma)]^dagger &= e^{-tau H} [mO^{(c)}(0, sigma)]^dagger e^{ tau H} &= mO^{(c)}(- tau, sigma). end{align} Here we used that the operator is self adjoint on the $t = tau = 0$ time slice. The above equation is different from Lorentzian signature, where the adjoint fixes $t mapsto t$, because the lack of an $i$ now means that $tau mapsto - tau$. In any case, we can see by inspection that our expression for $mathcal{O}^{(c)}$ does indeed satisfy the above relationship.
Now, let's see how to act with this operator at the distant past. We then have begin{align} lim_{tau to - infty} mO^{(p)}(w, bw) vk &= lim_{tau to - infty} w^{-h} bw^{-bh} mO^{(c)}( tau, sigma) vk &=lim_{tau to - infty} (e^{-Delta tau - i J sigma})e^{Delta tau + i J sigma} a_{00}^dagger vk &=a_{00}^dagger vk. end{align} We have to put in the prefactor $w^{-h} bw^{-bh}$, otherwise the euclidean time evolution will decay away the state to zero because $Delta > 0$. However, this is precisely the factor you would expect to get just from the relationship of $mO^{(p)}$ and $mO^{(c)}$.
Correct answer by user1379857 on May 17, 2021
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