Physics Asked by EMaether on August 14, 2021
Is Poynting’s theorem dependent on Faraday & Lenz law?
It’s an eloquent equation that shows the electrical to mechanical conversion (and vice versa), but I assume that it heavily relies on the observations described in both Faraday’s equation, and Lenz’s statement. Otherwise, how can it be derived without those two assumptions?
Faraday's and Lenz's law are part of what is know as Maxwell's equations. A set of differential equations that together with the Lorentz force law govern the classical behaviour of electric charges and electromagnetic fields.
The Poynting vector and Poynting theorem are a direct consequence of these laws.
Correct answer by Nephente on August 14, 2021
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