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Is it an assumption or truth for spatial and temporal variables separation if Hamiltonian is time-independent in Schrodinger equation?

Physics Asked by kinder chen on March 10, 2021

For the derivation from time-dependent Schrodinger equation to time-independent Schrodinger equation, if the Hamiltonian is time-independent, we assume the spatial and temporal variables in the wave-function are separable.

$$Psi(x,t)=psi(x)T(t)$$

Is this an assumption or truth? If it’s an assumption, what is the assumption in details?

One Answer

I'm not sure if this is what you're looking for, but (as AccidentalFourierTransform points out), the technique is called separation of variables.

The question is, how do we know all the possible solutions to the Schrodinger equation are of this form (separable) when the Hamiltonian is time-independent?

The way to check, which I understand is standard, is to look at all the possible general solutions you get out of the spatial and temporal ODEs post-separation, and see if their products $φ_i(x)T_j(t)$ form a basis over $L^2[(0,T)times mathbb{R}]$. This would mean you can match any function in $L^2[(0,T)times mathbb{R}]$ almost everywhere with linear combinations of those products, including all the solutions to the original equation.

Luckily, there are entire theoretical programs that were dedicated to precisely this, and you'll find that such theorems indicate the affirmative for the Schrodinger equation (that all solutions for the Schrodinger equation are separable when the Hamiltonian is time-independent).

Answered by aghostinthefigures on March 10, 2021

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