Physics Asked on July 16, 2021
The selection rules have $Delta m =0$ for light polarised in the z-direciton trying to excite an atom. Mathematically it is clear that $langle n, l, m_l| z |n, l, m_l rangle = 0$ unless $Delta m=0$. Therefore I understand the mathematical origin of this fact, I’m just looking for the most intuitive physical description of why this is true.
I have thought of the fact that there are no $x$,$y$ terms in the electric dipole radiation term in the Hamiltonian means that $m_l$ must be conserved through these transitions, but again this seems more ‘mathematical’ than intuitive.
I guess maybe it could just be geometrically obvious that any direction that is distorted solely by its z-coordinate cannot have its direction with respect to the z-axis affected?
As @Paul G said, clasically the explanation is that you require a torque about the z-axis in order to change the angular momentum about that axis. Therefore a force parallel to the z-axis cannot produce a torque about the z-axis.
Correct answer by Alex Gower on July 16, 2021
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