If you apply a force against a fixed body (no motion) for a certain period time, is the resulting force time integral an impulse?

Question

Say I'm 100 kg and hanging off a pullup bar for 10s. The force-time integral over that period would be FTI = 9.81 kNs
But do I apply an impulse?
According to the definition on Wikipedia, I would say no. My momentum or that of the pull-up bar/room does not change.
"Impulse applied to an object produces an equivalent vector change in its linear momentum, also in the same direction." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impulse_(physics)
I'm asking because the term is quite often used in the sports science literature when measuring athlete's endurance during isometric contractions and I'm curious if physics terms are in accordance with this.

J. Murray · Accepted Answer

Yes, you apply an impulse, which as you say is defined to be the time integral of an applied force.  The reason the linear momentum of the bar does not change is that the supports which are holding the bar up supply an equal and opposite impulse to it, so the total impulse applied to the bar is zero.
The impulse-momentum theorem refers to the total impulse delivered to an object, just as Newton's second law refers to the total force on an object  (in fact, the former is simply the time integral of the latter).

If you apply a force against a fixed body (no motion) for a certain period time, is the resulting force time integral an impulse?

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