Physics Asked on June 15, 2021
I understand the interpretation given in topics like this one that gauge symmetries are “fake” in the sense that they do not represent an actual difference in physical states. I also know that gauge symmetries are those that are local. But how would I see the relation between the two? Or, to put it another way: given a Lagrangian, how can I see directly whether the “symmetry” is a real symmetry or not?
For concreteness, consider the following Lagrangians:
$$mathcal{L}_S = frac12 partial_mu vecphi cdot partial^mu vecphi – frac12 m^2 vecphi cdot vecphi $$
$$mathcal{L}_M = -frac14 F_{munu}F^{munu}$$
In the first case we have that $vec phi to R vecphi$ is a symmetry when $R in SO(3)$, in the second case we have the usual gauge symmetry of pure electromagnetism. Why is the latter a gauge symmetry and not the former? If we label states with the value of the fields, why do $|A_murangle$ and $|A_mu + partial_mu lambdarangle$ represent the same physical state but $|vecphirangle$ and $|Rvecphirangle$ do not?
I had a feeling this might have to do with the Noether currents, so I calculated them: in the first case we have three currents given by $J_a^mu = i partial^mu phi_a (T_a)_{bc} phi_b$ with $T_a$ the generators of $SO(3)$, in the second case I get a current of the form $J^mu = -F^{munu}partial_nu lambda$. Does it have to do with the fact that there are an infinite number of currents, one for each $lambda$?
You can't tell just by looking at the Lagrangians. In fact, gauge "symmetry" is something you put in by hand. For instance, you could quantize the $U(1)$ theory you denote as $mathcal{L}_M$ without gauging, taking the $U(1)$ to be global (you can quantize either using harmonic oscillators or in the path integral picture). This would give you a completely well-defined quantum theory, but one that has too many modes to describe the physical Maxwell theory, and you'd get some negative-norm states. Likewise, you could gauge the $SO(3)$ theory $mathcal{L}_S$ (you'd have to replace the $partial_mu$'s by covariant derivatives $D_mu = partial_mu + A_mu$ where the $A_mu$'s transform in the adjoint of $SO(3)$).
By the way, the formula for your $U(1)$ Noether current is certainly not right, it shouldn't depend on $lambda$. By Lorentz invariance and dimensional analysis it should be something like $J_mu = a_1 , A_mu partial_nu A^nu + ldots$.
Answered by user159249 on June 15, 2021
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP