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How can reflected light be visible if for every trough of a light wave, there is also a simultaneously arriving peak?

Physics Asked on June 3, 2021

When monochromatic light is emitted from a source, there are many out of phase waves. As these waves arrive a place on a screen, there are a multitude of phases. As this is not ‘coherent light’, their phases must be randomly distributed with respect to time. At any given instant therefore, there are a multitude of light rays (or particles if you prefer that flavor) with all possible phases arriving at a point. Therefore, for every peak there must be a trough. So, why isn’t there always negative interference for all the light rays? (to result in no light reflected)

I read this:

Understanding the Interference of Light

and it asks something similar:

"shouldn’t all the light waves coming out from the bulb interfere and thus gives us light in only direction at that particular instant?"

I don’t even see (no pun intended) how there can even be ANY light in a given direction.

3 Answers

I will present first some words to explain the general idea, then I will add a more careful calculation.

Rather than "for every peak there must be a trough" it is more accurate to say "for every peak of one wave there is either a peak or a trough of some other wave". When a peak and trough cancel out, you get zero. When a peak and a peak add up, you get twice the amplitude and therefore four times the intensity (because intensity is proportional to amplitude squared). On average, for two such waves, on half of the occasions you get zero and on half the occasions you get 4 times the intensity of either wave on its own. Therefore on average you get twice the intensity of either wave on its own.

Now here is the above set out a little more fully.

Say the first wave has amplitude $A_1$, and at some given location it oscillates as $$ y_1 = A_1 cos(omega t). $$ Similarly, the second wave oscillates as $$ y_2 = A_2 cos(omega t + phi) $$ where $phi$ is the phase offset between the waves, which is here a random variable. The total oscillation is $$ y = y_1 + y_2 = A_1 cos(omega t) + A_2 cos(omega t + phi) $$ so the total amplitude is $$ I = langle y^2 rangle = langle (A_1 cos(omega t) + A_2 cos(omega t + phi))^2 rangle $$ where the angle bracket signifies an average over time and over all values of $phi$. Expanding the bracket gives $$ I = langle (A^2_1 cos^2(omega t) + A^2_2 cos^2(omega t + phi) + 2 A_1 A_2 cos(omega t) cos(omega t + phi) rangle . $$ Now the average of a sum is the sum of the averages, so we have $$ I = A^2_1 langle cos^2(omega t) rangle + A^2_2 langle cos^2(omega t + phi) rangle + 2 A_1 A_2 langle cos(omega t) cos(omega t + phi) rangle. $$ The average value of the $cos^2$ function is one half (try plotting it and this should become obvious to you). The function $cos(omega t) cos(omega t + phi)$ has an average value of zero, after you allow for all values of $phi$. If you are not sure about this, then you can try plotting graphs, or else use the formula $$ cos(theta + phi) = cos(theta) cos(phi) - sin(theta) sin(phi). $$ So the overall result is $$ I = frac{A_1^2 + A_2^2}{2}. $$

This calculation considered just two waves with a random relative phase. For many waves the argument is similar but involves a larger sum, with similar results.

Correct answer by Andrew Steane on June 3, 2021

When you say 'for every peak there must be a trough' you are making an assertion that is clearly not substantiated by the fact that we do indeed see light everywhere. I suspect that the conditions required for the peaks and troughs to be cancelled everywhere would in fact be so rarely satisfied that the probability of it would be vanishingly close to zero.

Instead, the effect of a random distribution of out-of-phase light rays, each travelling in a slightly different direction, and possessing a range of frequencies, would be rather like the surface of a pond troubled by random winds, namely a randomly disturbed surface rather than the completely flat surface that would be found if the random effects cancelled out.

Answered by Marco Ocram on June 3, 2021

I am posting a comment here because the comment section is too limited. Thank you Marco and Andrew for taking the time to reply. Andrew, I especially appreciate your nudge to shed light on the interference going on in my brain. My initial reaction was 'Wow another success for math over intuition'. So I watched this:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YNW8t7ZxdH4&t=43s

Andrew, I dont get why you squared y to get the magnitude. (I noticed the exponent was inside the bracket and was a typo).

Anyway after watching the video, my thought process is this: I have one phase shifted wave,

$sin(kx + phi)$

and the original wave,

$sin(kx)$

The sum is:

$y1 + y2 = (sin(kx + phi) + sin(kx))$

I want to consider that the original wave will interact with an infinite number of phase shifted waves.

$y1 + y2 = int_0^{2pi} (sin(kx ) + sin(kx + phi)) dphi$

$y1 + y2 = 2pi sin(kx)$

not quite 2 times the amplitude of the original wave so somewhere I got lost.

Answered by aquagremlin on June 3, 2021

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