Physics Asked by Mohammad Sakib Shahriar on March 27, 2021
Suppose force is applied to an end of a rod in a perpendicular direction of the rod which is resting on a frictionless surface( for example: frictionless surface of a table). It is supposed to rotate. Why will that rod rotate?
To be honest I really do not understand why does it rotate in such cases. It would be a great help if anyone provides me a link or explains me this thing.
It will rotate as well as translate because the force is not applied to the center of mass and there are no other forces (except gravity, which is downward) acting on the rod. If the force was applied to the center of mass of the rod (presumed to be at the center of the rod if its mass is uniformly distributed along it length), then the rod will only translate and not rotate.
As you explained that for the case stated in the question the rod will translate and rotate, it would be a little bit more helpful for me if you could explain why does it rotate.
See the diagram below.
For the purpose of determining rotation, the center of mass of the rod can be considered mid point of its length (assuming its mass is uniformly distributed along its length.
You can see there is a net torque of $tau=FL/2$ about the center of mass which will initiate clockwise rotation rotation of the rod. The force $F$, which is unopposed, will also result in translation of the COM. If the line of action of the force was through the COM, there would be no net torque on the rod and its motion would only be translation.
Hope this helps.
Correct answer by Bob D on March 27, 2021
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