Physics Asked on November 28, 2020
In Griffiths’ book “Introduction to Electrodynamics”, section $4.4$ on “Linear Dielectrics”, he says that in a homogeneous linear dielectric we have
$$boldsymbol{nabla}cdotboldsymbol{D}=rho_{rm f} :::{rm and}::: boldsymbol{nabla}timesboldsymbol{D}=0$$
Then he concludes that
$$boldsymbol{D}=epsilon_{0}{boldsymbol{E}}_{rm vac}$$
How does he make this conclusion? Shouldn’t it be $boldsymbol{D}=epsilon{boldsymbol{E}}$ where $epsilon$ is the permittivity of the linear dielectric and $boldsymbol{E}$ is the field due to free charges and polarization?
You are not interpreting correctly what he says. Griffiths argues that if your entire space is filled with homogeneous dielectric material, i.e. $epsilon_{r}left(x,y,zright)=rm const.$, then you can ignore the dielectric material in your calculation of $boldsymbol{D}$. He states that you can calculate $boldsymbol{E}$ like in the vacuum case (and that's why he writes $boldsymbol{E}_{rm vac}$), and then your electric displacement field is just
$$boldsymbol{D}=epsilon_{0}boldsymbol{E}_{rm vac}$$
Now, if you want to find the actual electric field, you use the usual equation $boldsymbol{D}=epsilonboldsymbol{E}$. Why does this all thing work at all? Because of the following correspondence
$$boldsymbol{nabla}cdotboldsymbol{D}=rho_{rm f} :::{rm and}::: boldsymbol{nabla}timesboldsymbol{D}=0$$ $$updownarrow$$ $$boldsymbol{nabla}cdotboldsymbol{E}_{rm vac}=frac{rho_{rm f}}{epsilon_{0}} :::{rm and}::: boldsymbol{nabla}timesboldsymbol{E}_{rm vac}=0$$
In other words, $boldsymbol{D}$ and $epsilon_{0}boldsymbol{E}_{rm vac}$ satisfy the same equations and are thus the same.
Answered by eranreches on November 28, 2020
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