Physics Asked by Mr. Gentleman on April 21, 2021
In some of the literature (for example, below Eq. (A3) of this paper), the following is claimed to be the Chern-Simons term in the Coulomb gauge:
begin{equation}
2a_0(partial_1a_2-partial_2a_1)
end{equation}
and it cited this paper, which below its Eq. (5) states that the above term is the Chern-Simons term in radiation gauge.
My questions are:
Is the radiation gauge the same as the Coulomb gauge, where $partial_1a_1+partial_2a_2=0$.
Why is the above term the Chern-Simons in the Coulomb gauge? The standard Chern-Simons term is
$$epsilon_{munulambda}a_mupartial_nu a_lambda=a_0(partial_1a_2-partial_2a_1)+a_1(partial_2a_0-partial_0a_2)+a_2(partial_0a_1-partial_1a_0)$$
After integrating by parts it becomes
$$epsilon_{munulambda}a_mupartial_nu a_lambdarightarrow 2a_0(partial_1a_2-partial_2a_1)+2a_2partial_0a_1$$
which still differs from $2a_0(partial_1a_2-partial_2a_1)$ by the last term that does not seem to vanish in the Coulomb gauge.
Yes.
The question now is to show $$ int d^2xepsilon^{munusigma}a_{mu} partial_{mu}a_{sigma}=int d^2x [2 a_0(partial_1 a_2-partial_2 a_1)+(a_2partial_0 a_1-a_1partial_0 a_2)] =int d^2x 2 a_0(partial_1 a_2-partial_2 a_1) tag{1}. $$ That is, $$ int d^2x (a_2partial_0 a_1-a_1partial_0 a_2)=int d^2x vec{a}times partial_0 vec{a}=0 tag{2}. $$ The Coulomb gauge condition ($nabla cdot vec{a}=0$) in momentum space is $vec{k}cdotvec{a}(vec{k})=0$. Differentiating with respect to time and $krightarrow -k$ gives $vec{k}cdot partial_0 vec{a}(-vec{k})=0.$. These two equations imply that $vec{a}(vec{k})$ and $partial_0 vec{a}(-vec{k})$ are both perpendicular to $vec{k}$, which in turn imply that they are parallel to each other: $$ vec{a}(vec{k}) times partial_0 vec{a}(vec{-k})=0 tag{3}. $$ Now, representing (2) in momentum space gives $$ int d^2x vec{a}times partial_0 vec{a}=int frac{d^2k}{(2pi)^2}vec{a}(vec{k})times partial_0 vec{a}(-vec k)=0,tag{4} $$ and the claim is proved.
Correct answer by Kyung-Su on April 21, 2021
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