Physics Asked by Normen Auler on August 5, 2021
I have a problem of understanding. In QM, the phase factor of a wave function does not change the probability density. It does change the probability current density though. What is the physical interpretation of my phase factor then?
In my lecture, it is shown in the Aharonov-Bohm Experiment, that gauge and phase are related and that it leads to the differences in interference measurement, but I do not really get the main point in what the phase now actually does to change real experiments. How does the electron’s wave phase modify the magnetic field potential and why does that give me different outcomes in the experiment?
I am obviously missing something here and maybe somebody has an easy way of interpreting this.
Thanks.
A phase change that is the same at at all points does not change the quantum state. A phase change that is different at different points does change the quantum state. The wavefunction $psi(x)=1$ has zero momentum as does $psi(x)= e^{ipi/2}$. The wavefunction $e^{iphi(x)}$ with $phi(x)= px/hbar$ has momentum up $p$.
Answered by mike stone on August 5, 2021
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