Personal Finance & Money Asked by pixelearth on December 1, 2020
US tax law question:
I have a "partner" that gets 0% of profit, is responsible for 0% of loss, but does get 5% of sale of the business should that occur.
Am I required to file a K1 for him?
It's an interesting theoretical question,
A few issues,
Are you quite sure you have "elected to be taxed as a partnership"? If not, forget it
In the US I'm not actually sure you can have an LLC where "someone gets nothing". It has to be a passthrough entity. You can't actually have (I think) weird arrangements such as "you get nothing but in the case of a sale or entity you get X"
Note that it's common in business to have an agreement like "If company X is sold, person P gets { something }" In that case, person P is not an owner, partner, LLC member, or anything else - they are just a person with the agreement mentioned. Really it sounds like the person mentioned is NOT a partner or owner, they're just "this guy" who you have an obligation to if you sell the company in question
Just in general terms, sure, you have to send out K-1s even if you have a loss. But again see point 2, I don't think you can even formulate an LLC in the mode described, I'm afraid
Answered by Fattie on December 1, 2020
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP