Personal Finance & Money Asked by GGGG on December 23, 2020
I came across these sentences when reading about the J-Curve Effect:
In the goods market model, it is assumed that the exchange rate (E$/£) is directly related to current account demand in the United States. The logic of the relationship goes as follows. If the dollar depreciates, meaning E$/£ rises, then foreign goods will become more expensive to U.S. residents, causing a decrease in import demand.
I don’t understand this sentence: "If the dollar depreciates, meaning E$/£ rises…"
Doesn’t E$/£ mean that the dollar is the base currency? So for example, if I said that E$/£ = £1.12 then with one dollar you get 1.12 pounds? Doesn’t this mean that if the dollar depreciates, then the exchange rate should decrease?
So in the case of depreciation of the dollar, the paragraph says that it means that E$/£ rises. But how is that possible?
If the E$/£ is £1.12 as of now , and say, it becomes E$/£ = £1.15. Before, with one dollar you could buy £1.12, but now you can buy more (£1.15). This means that the dollar has appreciated in value.
What am I getting wrong?
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