Personal Finance & Money Asked on July 19, 2021
Imagine a private seller wants to save money by not hiring an agent, but is willing to pay some amount to a potential buyer’s agent to seal the deal.
In the described situation can the buyer’s salesperson receive the commission directly or they should have the seller to write a cheque or something under the brokerage’s name and then get their share from the brokerage after the brokerage has taken their portion?
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