Mathematics Asked by Maximilian Janisch on December 15, 2020
The same question was posted on MathOverflow.
Assume that we have a stock whose price behaves exactly like a Wiener process. (There are multiple reasons why this is not the case in real life, but bear with me). I invest $1$ $ into the stock. Then I wait until the stock rises to $1.1$$. If the stock price hits $0$$ before it hits $1.1$$, I go bankrupt and lose my investment.
Is this a viable strategy? And if yes, why is it possible to make money off of a random walk?
Assume we are given a standard Wiener process $(W_t)_{tin[0,infty[}$, i.e. a family of real random variables on a probability space $(Omega,mathcal A, mathsf P)$ (event space, $sigma$-algebra and the probability measure, respectively) such that for every $tgeq0$, we have
My strategy, I will call it $S$, is to wait until I make $0.1$$ in profit, i.e. until the Wiener process hits $0.1$. If the process hits $-1$ before hitting $0.1$, I loose all my money.
So we have $S =0.1$ if there exists a $tgeq0$ such that $W_t=0.1$ and $W_s>-1$ for all $sle t$ and we have $S=-1$ otherwise.
What is the expected value of $S$? It think it is $0$. However, I don’t know how to prove this.
It is well-known${}^1$ that the running maximum $M_toverset{text{Def.}}=max_{0le sle t} W_s$ has the cumulative distribution function $$mathsf P(M_tle m)=begin{cases}operatorname{erf}left(frac m{sqrt{2t}}right), &text{if }m geq0\0, &text{if }mle0end{cases}.$$
So for a fixed $t_0geq0$, we know that $$mathsf P(W_s>-1text{ for all }sle t_0) = mathsf P(M_{t_0}<1)=operatorname{erf}left(frac{1}{sqrt{2t}}right).$$
I don’t see how to compute $mathsf E(S)$ from that, though.
Maybe one can try to solve a discretized problem as was done in this great answer and then use Donsker’s Theorem to conclude?
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP