Mathematics Asked by user117375 on December 5, 2021
I want to know the truth value of :
There exists an integer $n $such that if $n > 2,$ then $n^2 = 2n$.
I will say it is false (F) at the first glance. Even with careful contemplation, I still think it is false.
However, the key (at least) says it is vacuously true because “$2>2 rightarrow 2^2 = 2 times 2$”.
It is true that $2>2$ is always false so $F rightarrow T$ is always true. But I still do not understand.
Anyone has a way to explain it ?
The basic principle is that, for any logical propositions $A$ and $B$ we have:
$~~~~~~A implies [neg A implies B]$
Regardless of the truth value of $B$, if $A$ is true, then the implication $neg A$ implies $B$ is said to be vacuously true.
Here is the truth table (screenshot from Wolfram Alpha):
Here is a proof using a form of natural deduction (screenshot from DC Proof 2.0):
Answered by Dan Christensen on December 5, 2021
If $A$ is false then $A to B$ is always true, no matter what $B$ is. So just take an $n$ for which the first clause $n > 2$ is false, and then "if $n > 2$ then $B$" is true.
Similarly "if I am a unicorn then pigs can fly" is a true statement, since I am in fact not a unicorn. And "There is some person $A$ such that if $A$ is a unicorn then pigs can fly" is true as long as there is some person who is not a unicorn.
I suspect your confusion may be caused by the given statement looking almost like "There is some $n > 2$ such that $n^2 = 2 n$": in fact students often write "There is some $n$ such that if $n > 2$ then $ldots$ when they mean ""There is some $n > 2$ such that $ldots$". But the two statements are quite different.
Answered by Robert Israel on December 5, 2021
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