Mathematics Asked on February 6, 2021
I have found an answer here but having some doubts about the first answer(highest rep.) posted by Jonas Meyer.
There in Claim 1. He states for all $epsilon>0$, $U-epsilon:={u- epsilon: u in U}$ is not contained in $U$.
He proved by method of contradiction, he writes "If $U-epsilon subseteq U$, then $U-nepsilon subseteq U$" for all $n$.
My question is how can we conclude this statement?
Edit: I have a few more questions:
After proving claim 2, he moves on to construct an increasing sequence.
He writes "There exist $n_2>n_1$ such that $x_2 notin U-frac{1}{n_1}$" How
can we obtain that $n_2>n_1$? Can it not be smaller than $n_1$?
After creating the monotone increasing sequence $(x_k)$ it is written "(x_k)" is bounded above by each element of U. How can we conclude this?
In the second last line it is written "$bigcap_{j=1}^infty U-frac{1}{n_j}=bigcap_{n=1}^infty U-frac{1}{n}$". How can we conclude this?
By induction on $n$. Suppose that $U-epsilonsubseteq U$. If $U-nepsilonsubseteq U$ for some $ninBbb N$, then
$$U-(n+1)epsilon=(U-epsilon)-nepsilonsubseteq U-nepsilonsubseteq U,.$$
That’s the induction step, and the claim follows immediately.
Added to answer the additional questions.
For the first question, note that $U-frac1nsubseteq U-frac1m$ whenever $nge m$.1 Thus, if $xnotin U-frac1m$, then $xnotin U-frac1n$ for $nge m$. There is certainly some $m$ such that $x_2notin U-frac1m$, and we’ve just shown that in that case $x_2notin U-frac1n$ for all $nge m$, so we can simply take $$n_2=max{m,n_1+1}$$ to ensure that $n_2>n_1$.
1 To see this, suppose that $nge m$, and let $xin U-frac1n$. Then $$x+frac1mge x+frac1nin U,,$$ so $x+frac1min U$, and hence $xin U-frac1m$.
For your second question, note that if $uin U$, and $v>u$, then $vin U$. If the sequence is not bounded above by each element of $U$, there are a $kinBbb Z^+$ and a $uin U$, such that $u<x_k$. But then $x_kin U$, contradicting the fact that every point of the sequence was chosen not to be in $U$.
For your third question, the fact that
$$bigcap_{j=1}^inftyleft(U-frac1{n_j}right)=bigcap_{n=1}^inftyleft(U-frac1nright)$$
is an immediate consequence of the fact, proved above, that $$U-frac1nsubseteq U-frac1m$$ whenever $nge m$:
$$U-1supseteq U-frac12supseteq U-frac13supseteqldots;.$$
If a point is not in some $U-frac1n$, then it isn’t in $U-frac1{n_j}$ for any $n_jge n$, and there is certainly an $n_jge n$. (In fact the intersection of any infinite subsequence of a decreasing sequence of sets is the same as the intersection of the entire sequence.)
Answered by Brian M. Scott on February 6, 2021
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