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Is this probabilistic proof for Brocard's Conjecture flawed?

Mathematics Asked by Sneezeburgers on November 16, 2021

Brocard’s conjecture is the assertion that there are at least four primes between consecutive prime squares, for primes greater than 2. In notation,

$pi(p_{n+1}^{2})-pi(p_{n}^{2})ge4$
for $ngt1$
(so $p_ngt2$).

I’ve been working on Legendre’s conjecture for a while, so I figured taking a stab at a weaker form might give me insight to a more ‘fertile’ method of investigation. Anyway, here’s what I have so far, and it feels… incomplete. If you could give it a run down, it would be much appreciated! 🙂

(Also, I’m sorry my language is a bit complicated – I need to re-study set theory :^)

All $x$ on the open interval $(1,p_{n+1}^{2})$ of the form

$x=(p_{n}#)cdot{k}+q$,

where

  • $k,qin{Bbb{Z_{0}^{+}}}$
  • $qlt{p_{n}#}$
  • and $gcd(q,p_{n}#)=1$
  • (and $#$ denotes the primorial function)

are prime (Eratosthenes).

As an example, all numbers that are coprime to $30$, which is $2cdot{3}cdot{5}$, on the open interval $(1,7^{2})$ are prime: $7,11,13,17,19,23,29,31,37,41,43,47$. This follows from the Sieve of Eratosthenes, and the fact that a proper divisor $d$ of a number $N$ must be less than or equal to the square root of that number $N$.

The only primes on the open interval $(1,p_{n+1}^{2})$ that are not of the form $x=(p_{n}#)cdot{k}+q$ are those primes

$p_{C}, Cle{n}$,

because when $k=0,x=q$, so $gcd(x,p_{n}#)ne{1}$ if $x=p_{C}$,

and when $kgt{0},x=(p_{n}#)cdot{k}+qgt{p_n}#gt{p_{C}}$, so $xne P_{C}$,

and there are $n$ of these primes.

There are $phi{(p_{n}#)}$ $q$‘s coprime to $p_{n}#$, where $phi{(x)}$ is Euler’s totient function, by definition (Euler).
A well known way to calculate the totient of a primorial is by the product

$phi(p_{n}#)=p_{n}#cdot{prodlimits_{primespace{p_i}}^{p_{n}}}{left(1-frac{1}{p_i}right)}$

Let $bar{phi}(p_{n}#)$ denote the proportion of q’s over $(1,p_{n}#)$, that is:

$bar{phi}(p_{n}#)=frac{p_{n}#cdot{prodlimits_{primespace{p_i}}^{p_{n}}}{left(1-frac{1}{p_i}right)}}{p_{n}#}=prodlimits_{primespace{p_i}}^{p_{n}}{left(1-frac{1}{p_i}right)}=prodlimits_{primespace{p_i}}^{p_{n}}{left(frac{p_i-1}{p_i}right)}$

Now, using this proportion $bar{phi}$, we can estimate the number of numbers on $(1,p_{n+1}^{2})$ that are coprime to $p_{n}#$ and thus prime, like so:

$left(bar{phi}(p_{n}#)right)cdotleft(p_{n+1}^{2}-2right)$.

This is derived from the proportion $bar{phi}$ multiplied by the amount of numbers on the interval, $left(p_{n+1}^{2}-2right)$.

And adding back the $n$ first primes $p_{C}$, we have:

$pi(p_{n+1}^2)approx{n}+left(bar{phi}(p_{n}#)right)cdotleft(p_{n+1}^{2}-2right)$. You may see where I’m going with this.

Let’s now consider the proportion $bar{phi}(p_{n}#)$:

Reorganizing, $bar{phi}(p_{n}#)=prodlimits_{primespace{p_i}}^{p_n}left(frac{p_i-1}{p_i}right)=frac{1}{p_n}cdotprodlimits_{primespace{p_i}gt2}^{p_n}left(frac{p_i-1}{p_{i-1}}right)$.

As $p_{n+1}ge{p_{n}+2}$, so $prodlimits_{primespace{p_i}gt2}^{p_n}left(frac{p_i-1}{p_{i-1}}right)gt{1}$ for $n>1$, and $bar{phi}(p_n#)gt{frac{1}{p_{n}}}gt{frac{1}{p_{n+1}}}$

For $n=4$, we have $p_{4}=7$, so

$bar{phi}(7#)=prodlimits_{prime space {p_i}}^{7}frac{p_i-1}{p_i}=frac{1}{2}cdotfrac{2}{3}cdotfrac{4}{5}cdotfrac{6}{7}=1cdotfrac{2}{2}cdotfrac{4}{3}cdotfrac{6}{5}cdotfrac{1}{7}=frac{8}{5}cdotfrac{1}{7}$

More specifically, $bar{phi}(p_{n})gefrac{8}{5}cdotfrac{1}{p_{n}}gtfrac{8}{5}cdotfrac{1}{p_{n+1}}$ when $nge4$.

Rewriting as a recurrence relationship, $bar{phi}(p_{n}#)=bar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotfrac{p_{n}-1}{p_{n}}$, so $bar{phi}(p_{n}#)gtfrac{8}{5}cdotfrac{p_{n}-1}{p_{n}^2}gtfrac{8}{5}cdotfrac{p_{n+1}-1}{p_{n+1}^2}$ when $ngt4$.

Now, finally, let

$A:=pi(p_{n+1}^2)approx{n}+bar{phi}(p_{n}#)cdot{left(p_{n+1}^2-2right)}$, and

$B:=pi(p_{n}^2)approx{n-1}+bar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotleft(p_{n}^2-2right)$.

Restating $A$ using the recurrence relation,

$Aapprox{n+left(frac{p_n-1}{p_n}right)cdotbar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotleft(p_{n+1}^2-2right)}$.

Taking the difference, $A-Bapprox{1+bar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotleft[left(frac{p_{n}-1}{p_{n}}right)cdotleft(p_{n+1}^2-2right)-left(p_{n}^2-2right)right]}$, and simplifying using $p_{n+1}ge p_{n}+2$,

$A-Bge{1+bar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotleft[left(frac{p_{n}-1}{p_{n}}right)cdotleft((p_{n}+2)^2-2right)-left(p_{n}^2-2right)right]}$

Skipping some working out…(I might add a comment with this particular working out)

$A-Bge{1+bar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotleft[frac{3p_{n}^2-2}{p_{n}}right]}$

And lastly, using the $bar{phi}$ inequality,

$A-Bgt{1+frac{8}{5}cdotleft(frac{p_n-1}{p_n^2}right)cdotleft[frac{3p_{n}^2-2}{p_{n}}right]}=1+frac{8}{5}cdotleft(3-frac{3}{p_{n}}-frac{2}{p_{n}^2}+frac{2}{p_{n}^3}right)gt4$ when $p_ngt3$, which agrees with the range of $nge4, p_nge{7}$ from the $bar{phi}$ inequality. The existence of at least four primes between $3^2$ and $5^2$, and at least four more between $5^2$ and $7^2$ can be verified manually $left[left(11,13,17,19,23right),left(29,31,37,41,43,47right)right]$.

Q.E.D.?

One Answer

When you use estimation, you throw out all rigor in the proof. In fact, your proof does not at all mention the degree of accuracy of your estimation.

There does not seem to be a way to salvage this into a valid proof. After computationally examining your estimate up to $p_{50}$, it turns out that your estimate for $A-B$ is, in some cases, substantially greater than the actual value.

In other words, although $A-B<1+bar{phi}(p_{n-1}#)cdotleft[left(frac{p_{n}-1}{p_{n}}right)cdotleft(p_{n+1}^2-2right)-left(p_{n}^2-2right)right]$ for many primes, you then must show that $A-B$ is greater than something, which is clearly not how inequalities work.

The case where you overestimate $A-B$ does not seem to be rare. For example, such cases occur at $n=50,47,46,44$, to provide some examples.

Answered by Maxim Enis on November 16, 2021

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