Mathematics Asked by Yan Qin on December 6, 2021
In calculus class we were given this so-called "coffin problem" originally from Moscow State University.
Find all real functions $F(x)$, having the property that for any $x_1$ and $x_2$ the
following inequality holds:
$$F(x_1) − F(x_2) le (x_1 − x_2)^2$$
I have the solution to this problem, which is supposed to make the question very intuitive once you see it. However, I still do not quite understand it, and I would appreciate your help.
Solution:
The inequality implies
$$frac{F(x_1) − F(x_2)}{|x_1 − x_2|} le |x_1 − x_2|,$$
so the derivative of $F$ at any point $x_2$ exists and is equal to zero. Therefore,
by the fundamental theorem of calculus, the constant functions are exactly the
functions with the desired property.
Based on this solution, I substituted $x_1=x_2+h$ and took the limit as $h$ approaches zero, therefore by first principles, the derivative of $F(x)$ at $x_2$ is less than or equal to zero. Where do I proceed from here?
The intended solution seems to be something like the following:
Fix some $x in mathbb{R}$. By assumption, for any $h in mathbb{R}$ (in particular, for any very small value of $h$), taking $x_1 = x+h$ and $x_2 = x$, we get
$$ F(x+h) - F(x) le big( (x-h) - x big)^2 implies frac{|F(x+h) - F(x)|}{|h|} le |h|. $$
Take $h$ to zero, do a little algebra (the limit passes into the absolute value, since the absolute value function is continuous at $0$), and apply the Squeeze Theorem to get
$$ Bigglvert underbrace{lim_{hto 0} frac{F(x+h) - F(x)}{h}}_{=F'(x),text{ if it exists}} Biggrvert le lim_{hto 0} |h| = 0.$$
This implies that $F$ is differentiable at $x$, and that $F'(x) = 0$. But $x$ was chosen arbitrarily, so $F$ is differentiable everywhere and $F' equiv 0$. Therefore $F$ is a constant function.
Answered by Xander Henderson on December 6, 2021
Exchanging $x_1$ with $x_2$ in the original inequality shows $F(x_1)-F(x_2)$ is bound by $pm(x_1-x_2)^2$, i.e. $left|frac{F(x_1)-F(x_2)}{x_1-x_2}right|le|x_1-x_2|$. This proves the two-sided derivative is $0$.
But you actually don't need derivatives to solve the problem. Since $|F(x)-F(0)|le x^2$ for all $x$, $|F(x)-F(0)|lelim_{ntoinfty}nleft(frac{x}{n}right)^2=lim_{ntoinfty}frac{x^2}{n}=0$ by the triangle inequality.
Answered by J.G. on December 6, 2021
Get help from others!
Recent Answers
Recent Questions
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP