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Why didn't Euclid try to assign numbers to lengths?

History of Science and Mathematics Asked on September 2, 2021

Preliminary note: With “Euclid” I don’t mean a person but the mathematicians of the Euclidean period of which Euclid (if he had been one person) was a representative.


I imagine that Euclid could have thought about relating lengths and numbers in a bijective way even though they were considered completely different things. For rational lengths, it would have worked because for each rational length there is a number (which for Euclid was necessarily rational) and vice versa.

But unfortunately there do exist constructible lengths which provably are not rational (e.g. the length of the diagonal of the unit square) and for which Euclid hadn’t got a (rational) number to assign to. So this may have been the main reason that he abondonded the plan (if he had it) to relate lengths and numbers in a bijective way: there were not enough numbers.

But there may have been another (admittedly speculative) reason: For the assignment to work, one has to pick an arbitrary line segment and assign the number 1 (the unit) to its length. Did possibly Euclid dislike the arbitrariness of assigning the “primordial” unit (from the realm of platonic entities, from which all numbers are built) to a “random” line segment (from the realm of “earthly” entities)?

But note, that he doesn’t define (in Definition VII.1) the unit, but a unit. So this might not have been the reason. But the question arises why he didn’t define the unit, which seems much more intuitive. (How would he have distinguished between different units?)

Alternatively, he could have started with two “primordial” points – named 0 and 1 – from which all other points and lengths can be built with straightedge and compass, and assign the number 1 to the length of the distinguished “primordial” line segment $overline{01}$ – but that’s even more speculative.

I admit that I might completely misunderstand Euclid’s way of thinking. Any hint in which respect I do so would be welcome.


To my defense: Euclid’s Definition VII.1 is really rather obscure:

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A unit is that by virtue of which each of the things that exist is called one.
source

One Answer

You state the main reason correctly. At the time of Euclid, the only known numbers were rational numbers, and it was discovered that you cannot measure segments constructed in geometry with rational numbers. Therefore, numbers were abandoned in geometry.

Instead Euclid (or his predecessors) developed a highly sophisticated theory of proportions, which can be shown to be equivalent to our theory of real numbers. So they could talk about length and area of a circle, for example. It took two thusand years after Euclid to develop a satisfactory theory of real numbers. So Euclid just could not "assign numbers to lengths".

I recommend a very nice book which discusses these things: R. Hartshorne, Companion to Euclid, AMS, 1970.

Correct answer by Alexandre Eremenko on September 2, 2021

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