English Language & Usage Asked by user7294900 on December 13, 2020
Gel and jel are homophones,
but why g
sounds as j
in that case (and similar words as gelatin)?
Is it related to word origin?
Borrowed from French gélatine (“jelly, gel”), from Italian gelatina (“jelly, gel”)
It was decided to support both options as French/Italian?
A general guideline is that "g" is sometimes soft before "i", "e" and "y". It is invariably hard for all the other vowels, i.e. "a", "o" and "u".
Given the inconsistency of English spelling, one can never formulate a cast-iron rule.
My guess is that words derived from Latin or French, soften the "g" before "i" and "e" and that words that come from German don't.
I will be very surprised if someone has a complete rule for this. Let's wait and see.
Answered by chasly - supports Monica on December 13, 2020
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