What is this statement being used as?

Question

In composing a written response to a comparison that has been made, I've become a bit stumped. In the statement, the latter claims superiority over the former, based upon the self-identified qualities of the claimant as being so, drawing to the inevitable, therefore undeniable conclusion.

Here is the statement/argument:

Less education = religion fanatism, homophobia, violence, manipulation and fear sowing.

More education = secularism, respect for differences, kindness, ethic and morality.

What I am asking for, if it exists, is the name or style identifying this type of tactic/argument/comparison.

I know there are literary terms for such tactics/arguments/comparisons, however I have no idea where, other than here to seek an answer.

Your assistance is appreciated.

ADDED for clarity?

This statement was made during the course of a political conversation, whereby, the person I was discussing this with declared that to be a conservative means that you are likely [less educated, therefore prone towards religious fanaticism, homophobia, violence, manipulation and fear sowing], whereas, if you tend liberal, you are likely [more education, so on, and so on]. I am seeking a descriptor of this kind of argument, for lack of a better term. As in an argument scenario where it is said to be a "straw-man" argument, where you make an assertion, and then draw to a conclusion that misrepresents the opposing persons argument. That is the best I can do to describe what I am seeking.

Elliot · Answer

The term needed is Axiom. A mathematical or logical rule set out at the beginning of a proof.

In this more casual "proof" the writer is setting out Axioms, or statements/claims of equivalence that do not require nor permit further consideration. Once the equality has been made the argument that follows will no doubt lead to the intended conclusion;

Less educated people are [one outcome] vs.

More educated people who are [another outcome].

This is a means of using educated tools to get a predetermined result. I will forgo the list of logical fallacy this practice enjoys.

Such an axiomatic proof would certainly fall under "False Choices". Not all religious people are fanatics or homophobic. Not all well educated people are kind, respectful secularists. Yet given the starting point one is not allowed to come to any other conclusion.

Lawrence · Answer

This is called stereotyping.

stereotype noun
1 A widely held but fixed and oversimplified image or idea of a particular type of person or thing.
‘Because of this, it is crucial that research continues in this area so that racial myths, stereotypes and prejudice within New Zealand can be exposed and understood.’
- ODO
In social psychology, a stereotype is any thought widely adopted about specific types of individuals or certain ways of behaving intended to represent the entire group of those individuals or behaviors as a whole. These thoughts or beliefs may or may not accurately reflect reality.
- Wikipedia

The statement makes claims about the stereotypical world views of people by their level of education. Note, though, that these might simply be what the speaker hoped or claimed to be the stereotypes - the speaker hasn't made the case that the views are actually widely held.

user184130 · Answer

If there really is a connection between these characteristics then it would be an example of correlation. But:

You would need evidence that such a correlation exists (but perhaps in a political argument that isn't needed?)
Correlation is not the same as causation

Without evidence, I would agree it is stereotyping, baseless opinion, bigotry ...

What is this statement being used as?

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