English Language & Usage Asked on March 28, 2021
Problems with explaining English grammar often reside in the terminology.
There is often a big assumption that we understand what the terms mean.
Simple is, in my opinion, one of the most important examples.
Recently I have noticed two terms, present perfect and present perfect simple.
When I looked up simple in multiple dictionaries it stated that simple meant a verb tense without an auxiliary. So now I’m confused because the perfect tense uses the auxiliary has/had. So now I’m thinking, the meaning is a verb tense without an auxiliary "to be" verb means simple, but I can’t find that in writing anywhere. Being that I can’t find it written anywhere and that I can find present perfect written without the "simple" term added at the end, I’m starting to think that the present perfect is in fact not simple, but I have no idea.
I think the biggest problem with grammar, is it is somewhat scientific, yet it often lacks citation. People state rules all the time without ever stating the origins of them.
Ideally, I’d like to know who came up with using the term simple in English grammar and what they actually intended that word to mean and why we seem to be using it and NOT using to talk about the present perfect. My research on Google had led to no results on these matters.
The word "simple", in basic terms, has one stem and two branches.
The stem is neutral and there is:
and
Demonstrating the above, the OED gives
Etymology: < Anglo-Norman sinple, Anglo-Norman and Old French, Middle French simple (French simple ) (adjective) (of people) characterized by a lack of knowledge or education, (of a text, language, etc.) clear, straightforward (both early 12th cent.),[...] (of medical preparations) uncompounded (13th cent.), [...] (of a thing) not composite or complex (late 14th cent.), (of a word) not compound or complex (early 15th cent.),
When applied to a verb, we have the positive sense
The simple past - I saw.
The present perfect - I have seen
"Simple" is used as "saw" directly and clearly indicates the past - it is without any additions. Whereas, to achieve the same thing, "have seen" uses "to have" as a tense marker, plus the past participle. (This is "complex", "compound" i.e. not "simple".)
And we have
The simple present - I see
The continuous present - I am seeing
You should now be asking yourself "What about "I do/did see." and "Did you see?""
This form is still the simple past, and the "do" is the main verb merely used emphatically or in a periphrastic manner. The grammar recognises that "do" has no semantic function and thus the verb's tense remains "simple".
As far as "when and by whom was "simple first applied to verbs", we have
OED
18.a. Grammar. Of a word: consisting of a single unit or element; not compound or complex; (also) without an affix. Also (of a lexeme): consisting of a single word, that is not phrasal.
Here we see simple used of nouns:
?c1425 tr. Guy de Chauliac Grande Chirurgie (Paris) (1971) 75 [Apostemes] þat ben made..of þe lordschippe of one humour, þai..ben cleped of a symple name. Whiche þat ben made of the lordschippe of two humours or of many..ben cleped of a compowned name.
Here we see it used of "words":
1530 J. Palsgrave Lesclarcissement 68 Dyvers substantyves be symple, that is to saye, be nat compounde with any other wordes.
And here we see it recorded for the first time being used of verbs.
c1590 J. Leech Certaine Gram. Questions sig. Lv I must looke whether the verbe be simple or compounde.
So your answer is J Leech first used "simple" in reference to verbs somewhere about 1590.
Answered by Greybeard on March 28, 2021
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