What does "anyone is ever" mean in this sentence?

Question

Only in words is anyone ever omniscient.
which one is the correct understanding:

Only in words anyone could be omniscient
Only in words anyone was at least one time omniscient

Colin Fine · Answer

Your two paraphrases are not grammatical, because an initial only phrase at the start of a sentence triggers inversion.
The meaning is identical to Nobody is ever omniscient except in words.

What does "anyone is ever" mean in this sentence?

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