English Language & Usage Asked by Colm Maguire on January 9, 2021
Consider:
She told him to break it up.
He didn’t want to.
I know it means he didn’t want to break it up, but how does one explain the use of to in the second sentence? I understand what’s left out, and I get it re: the ellipsis—but I don’t understand why to is there at all.
Couldn’t one simply say He didn’t want and leave it at that?
In a comment John Lawler wrote:
Yeah. If the infinitive is already given in the preceding sentence (to break it up), the infinitive complementizer to functions as a pro-infinitive in the next clause, and one can omit the rest of the verb phrase.
Answered by tchrist on January 9, 2021
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