English Language & Usage Asked by NAN on December 23, 2020
Is it right to say that the tools are unaltered by typology ?
or is it better to say that tools are unaltered in terms of typology” ?
To say that tools are "Unaltered by typology" strictly means that typology has not altered them.
"Unaltered in terms of typology" means that the typology of the tools has not changed (they may have changed in other ways). I'm assuming this is what you mean.
I have certainly heard people use the first when they mean the second, but if you want to be clear use the second when you mean it.
Answered by DJClayworth on December 23, 2020
Perhaps "unaffected by" or "independent of" would work?
Answered by ak84 on December 23, 2020
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