English Language & Usage Asked on April 10, 2021
In Chapter Seven of Mary Shelley’s Frankenstein, I saw the following sentence:
I remembered also the nervous fever with which I had been seized just at the time that I dated my creation, and which would give an air of delirium to a tale otherwise so utterly improbable.
This use of "otherwise" may seem unusual in contemporary English, and would be rewritten with "already." I’d like to know if her use was common in the 19th century, or if it was unique to her.
In current English, "otherwise" signals a contrast, so we say things like "His lucid thinking added an element of truth to his otherwise totally improbable story." The contrast is between "an element of truth" and "totally improbable." But there’s no such contrast in Shelley’s sentence. "Already" seems to be a better word.
A glance at GoogleBooks turned up the following example of how "otherwise" is used:
Drifting larvae will colonize the place; the established community can seem an oasis of life and activity in an otherwise static sedimentary desert.
Here, the "otherwise" precedes the adjective "static" and "sedimentary," and the latter words stand in contrast to "an oasis of life and activity." This seems to be the standard way of how "otherwise + non-participial adjective/adjectival phrase" is used. If you don’t think so, please provide counterexamples from contemporary sources.
Some people think Shelley’s use of "otherwise" is just as how we use it in current English, and they believe the sentence says the nervous fever or delirium makes Frankenstein’s story of monster creation probable. If so, consider the following ludicrous dialogue.
A: I have created a living human by putting together body parts of corpses.
B: Why should I believe you?
A: Well, my story may sound improbable, but you’ve got to believe me because I was delirious around the time I created it.
Delirium suggests insanity, which in turn conveys an air of improbability. In other words, "delirium" and "utterly improbable" point to the same direction, so to speak. There is not really a contrast in Shelley’s sentence. Hopefully, you have a clear idea now why it’s ludicrous to argue that her use of "otherwise" indicates a contrast.
Those who claim that the "otherwise" in Shelley’s sentence is used as in current English would have to believe that the delirium somehow contrasts with "utterly improbable," adding an element of truth to Frankenstein’s tale. Such a belief is ludicrous for the reason given above. Moreover, the context shows even Frankenstein himself thought his story was not very convincing. The immediately following sentence in the context is:
I well knew that if any other had communicated such a relation to me, I should have looked upon it as the ravings of insanity.
If the "otherwise" had been used as in current English, Frankenstein would have instead said something like, "I thought my father and others might believe me, however remote that possibility was."
Note: Please make sure that you understand the context of the quote. As the comment section demonstrates, some people simply assume that her use of "otherwise" is correct and the same as in contemporary English. They will think again after they read the relevant passage in the context. If you think her use of "otherwise" is no different from how we use it in current English, please cite contemporary examples which have "otherwise" preceding a non-participial adjective or adjectival phrase. If you don’t talk about examples of this sort, you are not addressing the issue.
Because of past interactions regarding it, I’m going to let the answer below stand in its already revised state, but I’ve been feeling like this answer and answers and comments from others have been circling around what needed to be seen. Having moved from the 1971 compact version of the OED to the current version online, I find a much fuller account of the history of otherwise, listing two meanings as noun, principally in adverb phrases, five as adverb, and two as adjective, with many more examples.
The confusion over the meaning of otherwise in the sentence arises from confusion over its role. It is not an adjective of tale nor an adverb of improbable. Agreeing in part with Anton, but arriving at a different conclusion, I see tale is followed by an implied relative pronoun and verb to be omitted from an adjectival relative clause for stylistic reasons. In that clause, otherwise acts as an adverb of the unstated verb:
“I remembered also the nervous fever with which I had been seized just at the time that I dated my creation, and which would give an air of delirium to a tale [which is] otherwise so utterly improbable.”
Substituting one of the OED’s expressions of meaning B.1.a.— “In another way or ways; in a different manner; by other means; in other words; differently”—the sentence can be read:
“I remembered also the nervous fever with which I had been seized just at the time that I dated my creation, and which would give an air of delirium to a tale [which is] [by other means] so utterly improbable.”
I also agree with Apollyon's sense that already is part of the meaning particular to this sentence; perhaps in getting to Shelley's intention it can, interpretively, be added to, rather than replacing, our sense of otherwise:
“I remembered also the nervous fever with which I had been seized just at the time that I dated my creation, and which would give an air of delirium to a tale [which is] [by other means] [already] so utterly improbable.”
As stated below, "air of delirium" strengthens the quality of unbelievability in the tale expressed by "so utterly improbable," such that the speaker determines to remain silent rather than try to take responsibility for the genesis of the monster.
Mary Shelley’s choosing to let the relative pronoun be implied is a clear stylistic improvement over using either which for the third time or that for the second time in the sentence.
((((The two meanings of "otherwise" are (my paraphrasing):
in a different manner, or by other means; in another way also coming to and strengthening or reaffirming said certain condition
on the other hand, being in a different condition
The usage I have paraphrased here in the first spot comes first in the OED and is probably the earlier one. Both senses inhere in the word. It is actually a phrase, "in other way," compressed to a word just as "for a while" has become "awhile." The loss of "in" at the beginning accompanies the loss of its original meaning. The first seems much less common in the record, but the phrase originates in Old English, so there are centuries to explain the progression of meaning prior to Middle and modern English. In recent times the first sense has been largely lost.
Examples of usage 1:
Edmund Gosse. The Life and Letters of John Donne, Dodd, Mead 1899; Peter Smith 1959 (Volume 1) p.196. Kindle Edition. Gosse dates this letter to 1608:
"'A gent, that visited me yesterday told me that our Church hath lost Mr. Hugh Broughton, who is gone to the Roman side. I have known before that Serarius the Jesuit was an instrument from Cardinal Baronius to draw him to Rome to accept a stipend, only to serve the Christian Churches in controversies with the Jews, without endangering himself to change of his persuasion in particular deductions between these Christian Churches, or being inquired of, or tempted thereunto. And I hope he is no otherwise departed from us.'"
Radcliffe, Ann. The Mysteries of Udolpho: A Romance, 1794. (Penguin Classics) (p. 74). Start Classics. Kindle Edition:
“The grandeur and sublimity of the scenes, amidst which they had first met, had fascinated her fancy, and had imperceptibly contributed to render Valancourt more interesting by seeming to communicate to him somewhat of their own character. The esteem, too, which St. Aubert had repeatedly expressed for him, sanctioned this kindness; but, though his countenance and manner had continually expressed his admiration of her, he had not otherwise declared it; and even the hope of seeing him again was so distant, that she was scarcely conscious of it, still less that it influenced her conduct on this occasion.”
Robert Browning, “Guido,” lines 644-648 in The Ring and the Book p 120. Smith, Elder and Co., London, 1869. At Internet Archive:
"Straight he leaves lobby, trundles, two and two,
Down steps, to reach home, write if but a word
Shall end the impudence: he leaves who likes
Go pacify the Pope: there's Christ to serve!
How otherwise would men display their zeal?"
James J. O'Donnell, The Ruin of the Roman Empire, 2008. p315: Speaking of Patrick: "The Ireland that claimed him was otherwise little touched by the tendrils of Mediterranean civilization ...."
Examples of usage 2 are everywhere. Fielding, for example, uses otherwise forty-four times in Tom Jones, 1749, always in the second sense. It is often found in dictionaries to the exclusion of the first. However, one contemporary example of the first usage is noted.
Looking at the extended quotation of the paragraph offered by Xanne, the two elements linked by otherwise, "air of delirium" and "tale ... utterly improbable," converge in the same effect, that the speaker determines to remain silent. To me it seems usage 1 is meant in the passage from Mary Shelley's 1818 text. ))))
Correct answer by David Bartley on April 10, 2021
No, it would not be rewritten as “already.” Think of it as “even without which it would be considered . . .”
It is not a different use of the word from that in use today. Mary Shelley is an adroit user of language, and her text does not seem out-of-date today.
You yourself report searching the 19th century books in Google Ngram and not finding any use of “otherwise” meaning “already.”
Here’s the full paragraph:
Day dawned; and I directed my steps towards the town. The gates were open; and I hastened to my father's house. My first thought was to discover what I knew of the murderer, and cause instant pursuit to be made. But I paused when I reflected on the story that I had to tell. A being whom I myself had formed, and endued with life, had met me at midnight among the precipices of an inaccessible mountain. I remembered also the nervous fever with which I had been seized just at the time that I dated my creation, and which would give an air of delirium to a tale otherwise so utterly improbable. I well knew that if any other had communicated such a relation to me, I should have looked upon it as the ravings of insanity. Besides, the strange nature of the animal would elude all pursuit, even if I were so far credited as to persuade my relatives to commence it. Besides, of what use would be pursuit? Who could arrest a creature capable of scaling the overhanging sides of Mont Salêve? These reflections determined me, and I resolved to remain silent.
Answered by Xanne on April 10, 2021
The quoted text uses otherwise as an adjective to qualify tale. It might also be argued that otherwise is used as an adverb to qualify the implied elliptical verb in “… tale {that is} otherwise so…}”. Let us consider both possibilities:
Otherwise adjective = used to show that something is completely different from what you think it is or from what was previously stated
Otherwise adverb = differently, or in another way
The same meanings are expressed slightly differently in
The manners or timings of the differences between the two compared things are not explicit in these meanings of otherwise. Neither interpretation is consistent with the notion that otherwise may be replaced in contemporary usage by already.
Now consider already. Merriam Webster seems to echo the generally held view that this is an adverb:
Already adverb = prior to a specified or implied past, present, or future time : by this time
Also see relevant discussion of already in:
And so it is that we have to consider otherwise (adjective and adverb) and already (adverb). The question assumes an equivalence between otherwise and already that must therefore only apply to the adverbial uses.
Shelley writes “… a tale otherwise so utterly improbable …”, which may be reasonably taken adverbially to refer to “… a tale {that is, even when seen differently} so utterly improbable …”. This is consistent with the contemporary usage discussed above.
Answered by Anton on April 10, 2021
Using the quote in Xanne’s answer, we see that “the being” was one the narrator “formed”. That’s why the narrator didn’t consider the tale “utterly improbable”. To the narrator, the tale was definitely not “already” utterly improbable. Within the story, the narrator would have considered the tale to be factual, not even just merely “probable”.
The narrator’s admission is that others (who didn’t have that information) would have considered the tale “utterly improbable” - hence the description of the tale as “otherwise” utterly improbable.
Answered by Lawrence on April 10, 2021
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