English Language & Usage Asked on September 27, 2021
I have noticed many a time that some sentences do not use "to be" before an adjective.
For example:
the things that I learned from that book have proven (to be) useful to me time and again.
Does omitting "to be" from the above sentence change anything?
In general, there is no difference, and the 'to be' is entirely optional.
However, I think in some cases there is a slight difference, in that the 'to be' makes it more clear that you're talking about a short term state rather than an inherent trait of the subject.
For example:
Correct answer by Darth Pseudonym on September 27, 2021
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