English Language & Usage Asked on July 21, 2021
Consider these two sentences:
I’m trying to find the grammatical explanation for why the second sentence is acceptable, even though its second clause (you your bike) has no verb.
Thanks!
@BillJ commented...
It's called gapping (or 'gapped coordination'). This occurs when the middle part (usually inc. the verb) of a non-initial coordinate is omitted but recoverable from the corresponding part of the first coordinate, thus "I rode my horse and you __ your bike", where gap is understood as "rode".
Answered by Andrew Leach on July 21, 2021
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP