English Language & Usage Asked on August 4, 2021
I have a question regarding negative present perfect for past events with effects extending into the present.
Scenario: Just leaving coffee shop with friend #2. “That was fantastic; I haven’t seen friend #1 in years.” However, I just saw her moments ago. Would this use of present perfect be more colloquial, or is it a true example of stative/resultative present perfect? That is, can one still express the effects of not having seen that friend in years via negative present perfect, even though you just saw her?
Could we also have said “I hadn’t seen friend #1 In years”?
"Had not" is correct, because the period of not having seen the friend, and the end of that period, both occurred in the past. In the present, you have seen the friend.
You would still be understood if you said "I have not seen friend #1 in years" even as she walked away, but it's less precise grammar. It's like saying "I have seen Bob yesterday" instead of "I had seen Bob yesterday" or using simple past tense.
"I have not seen Diane in years" is correct until you do see her. Then, you must describe it with "had not" (or simple past tense).
Answered by user8356 on August 4, 2021
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