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Is it true that it's OK to omit the pluperfect (past-perfect) in casual speech?

English Language & Usage Asked on August 17, 2021

The pluperfect is used to indicate what is relatively earlier than the compared clause. But in conversation I hear people omit it all the time. Examples:

I haven’t spoken to the President since the inauguration. We had a few
conversations before that.

vs.

I haven’t spoken to the President since the inauguration. We’d had a few
conversations before that.

Or,

The incident occurred yesterday, but things started deteriorating
before that.

vs.

The incident occurred yesterday, but things had started deteriorating
before that.

If I were writing something I would take care to include the pluperfect, but in conversation I often don’t have time to do the comparison. It seems to be omitted a lot by people. Am I correct in this perception?

One Answer

It can be omitted because it is superfluous in meaning. Insert “by then” instead of “before that”, and your past perfect will come alive and necessary. It will make clear how one event preceded another and did not overlap.

Answered by user416741 on August 17, 2021

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