English Language & Usage Asked by zypA13510 on January 1, 2021
I’m trying to describe a scenario where, for a parent, their child has gone long enough (for them) to ______?
Honestly, both of them sound ok to me (not a native speaker), apart from the fact that be worried is longer to spell out. And searching on Google Ngram shows that enough to worry is more prevalent, though enough to be worried is also used sometimes.
And I can also think of other situations where the phrase would be used:
I’d like to know, is any one of them “wrong”/should be avoided, or is there any difference between these two, mood, emphasis, etc.? Any reason to choose one over the other?
There are three possibilities:
1.Their child has gone long enough (for them) to worry - intransitive infinitive - the parents worry.
(1a The long absence of their child worries them - transitive and active form.)
Their child has gone long enough (for them) to be worried by the child's absence - This is the passive form and [by the child's absence] is the agent of the sentence. - you can see worried is the past participle by substituting another past participle, e.g. "angered."
Answered by Greybeard on January 1, 2021
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