English Language & Usage Asked on February 20, 2021
Note: This question is about whether few a is a grammatical construction. It is not about the usage of a few. In my mind, few and few a have identical meanings — as opposed to few and a few, which do not.
In a recent English essay of mine, I wrote the following:
…on the edge of a town few a map even bother to record…
The instructor marked it up to the following:
…on the edge of a town few maps even bother to record…
Having my attention explicitly drawn to this made me realize that I have no idea where I picked this construction up — and I use it all the time. I can find several other instances of it in my own writings, but I am having trouble finding even one online. The Ngram viewer seems to support my construction being essentially nonexistent:
If I check the texts associated with "few a", all I find are variants of "…few, a…" or "…few. A…" (i.e., "few" and "a" are coincidentally linked by punctuation).
The second example above is obviously grammatical.
Is the first?
You are perhaps thinking of "Many a map shows the town" as in
1989 O. S. Card Prentice Alvin iii. 52 That road led through many a village and many a town.
and attempting to replace "many" with "few". Unfortunately, this collocation does not exist in English. It would be "Scarce a map..." but this construction is somewhat archaic.
Correct answer by Greybeard on February 20, 2021
Although the claim by user Greybeard is quite convincing, I wouldn't consider it as the ultimate explanation, not just by itself anyway. It's current usage to use this inversion in modern English when the degree adverb "too" is added: "too few a …". Plenty of examples are found here. I wouldn't neglect the possibility of this "extended" form having an influence on your subconscious in the way of legitimizing the "few a" form generally.
Answered by LPH on February 20, 2021
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