Dinner at mine or yours?

Rather than having seen this described usage on TV, I am British and lived there most of my life so I'm familiar with English in many of its different forms across the UK (and further afield).

colloquially common. I have rarely heard "mine" or "yours" as synonyms or abbreviated phrases for "my place" or "your place" (respectively. However, if I said to someone, "We can meet at the house" (s)he could legitimately ask "mine or yours?" or use either on it's own, either as a question "mine?" or as a statement "yours!".

I believe this is legitimately English but I'm not sure if it fits the circumstances that interest you or not. To explain any better (if I even could), I would need to know the exact words said that caused the "mine" or "yours" response.

It wouldn't surprise me if this is accurate English because it reminds me of the French, "Chez moi ou chez toi", considering the influence French has on British English.

I don't think it's an anachronism - I think it's relatively new. This is an example of an omission-gap conflation and a retro-intrusion parallelization followed by a pronomial generalization. (No, ha-ha, not really - I just made that up because I can't remember the real name for what that process is called, but it happens all the time in language.)

The previous form we're used to is: "my place or yours". But actually what's happening even here with "yours" is that "place" (digs, crib, cottage, castle, flat, house, whatever you want to name it) is already omitted. What is implied is "my place or your place". "Your place" conflates to just "yours". This happens in language shift for many different reasons, like efficiency, intimacy, regionalism, etc.

In the example above, the more current form of "mine" is changed to parallel "yours": the conflation of "yours" syntactically has a leftward influence and causes the same conflation of "my place" into "mine".

Then, the use of "mine" takes on its own meaningfulness and independence of usage, and as in David G's comment "we went back to mine..." Where the use of "mine" referring to "my place" no longer needs the context of "yours" or "your place". It morphs into its own stand-alone from possessive pronoun liberated into full noun-ness.

In American usage, I've only heard it in colloquial phrases like, "Don't worry, I'll get mines." Meaning, "I'll get what's owed to me." The form "mines" includes a final "s" either because it parallels (or mimics, or experiences intrusion - I can't remember, and I can't find the term for it...sorry) the final "s" in "yours" or because "mine" has already become nounified and the "s" indicates the plural...

What would be cool to find out, if anyone knows, what forms or production of possessives in other languages (not English) may have been an influence in your different regions - and how human geography shifts the usage... or even better, we could ask Anthony Horowitz...

Born 1947 - lived in Edinburgh, Aberdeen and London until 1974. Now Living in Denmark. About 20 years ago ‘come back to mine etc” popped up all over the place in books and on the tele. We never used that expression while I was in the UK. Always had a noun ‘house, place, flat etc’ No one here seems to have a valid explanation as to why the noun has been dropped. In French chez is accompanied by a pronoun ‘moi, toi etc’ Strange development.