English Language & Usage Asked by feynman on May 27, 2021
Is there any difference between ‘in the eye of’ vs ‘in the eyes of’? In the eye of the beholder. In the eyes of him.
No, there isn't.
"Beauty is in the eye of the beholder" is a set phrase which apparently originated in an 1878 novel. The author, Margaret Hungerford, chose to write eye in the singular.
I think most of us would use in the eyes of X to mean from X's point of view.
Answered by Kate Bunting on May 27, 2021
Get help from others!
Recent Questions
Recent Answers
© 2024 TransWikia.com. All rights reserved. Sites we Love: PCI Database, UKBizDB, Menu Kuliner, Sharing RPP