English Language & Usage Asked by For Memo on October 10, 2020
I was reading a contract and I found this usage of “be able to” very unfamiliar.
If during the execution of the Project any product from which
intellectual and/or industrial property may arise, the Receiving Party
shall immediately inform X of the content of such rights. These rights
shall belong exclusively to X, being able the latter to register
in the corresponding Registers as the owner of such rights.
I guess it’s just an inversion of “X being able to” but I’m not so sure. I googled this and I think it’s a bit old and probably not common.
Its just bad drafting. I think it is as simple as that, not a matter of age. The world is full of very poorly drafted legal documents.
Answered by Patrick on October 10, 2020
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