English Language & Usage Asked on June 13, 2021
In some languages there are particular verbs that can be used both with and without a preposition. In some of these cases, the verb also accepts multiple prepositions.
Example 1: Below is an example in Turkish using the verb "vurdu". This verb can accept a preposition but also function without it (although with a difference in meaning).
The word "beni", used in the first sentence, is in the accusative case (object pronoun). The word "bana", used in the second sentence, can be translated as "to me". So the difference between the two sentences is that the latter has the preposition "to", which changes the meaning of the verb.
Example 2: Here is another example in Turkish using the verb "kalsın". This verb can accept (at least) two prepositions.
"ona" can be translated as "to him", where as "onla" can be translated as "with him". The first sentence can imply that you shouldn’t cheat him by taking his share of whatever is being discussed. The second sentence can imply that you should leave/give whatever is being discussed to the person so that he can keep/safeguard it.
I’ve been thinking about this for a while now, and the closest example I can think of, in English, is the usage of "home" vs "to my house". Although the phrase "We’re going home" is just as valid as "We’re going to my house", the meaning of the verb does not change.
So, does such a grammatical pattern exist in English, where the verb changes in meaning based on the presence or type of preposition used?
Many phrasal verbs have this great change in meaning based on the preposition. For example, the verb 'put':
Here's a list of many such phrasal verbs showing how just changing the preposition doesn't just change the literal physical direction of the preposition) it changes the whole meaning.
Correct answer by Mitch on June 13, 2021
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